Questionable statement in article

[Remko Lodder]

> But this only holds as long as code(bsd) > code(linux) to begin with.... 
> no? Do we know for a fact that code(bsd) > code(linux)? I know I've been 
> hard pressed to find software from vendors that was marketed as being 
> developed for BSD, as opposed to Linux or Solaris, etc....
> 
> Best,
> G.

You dont see the point i think, BSD can execute it's own code, and thus 
any software written for BSD itself, AND it has the power to execute 
Linux code, so that makes

BSD (BSD+Linux) vs Linux (Linux)

And since there is at least one product more on BSD then for Linux it is 
a correct statement....

> 

-- 
Kind regards,

Remko Lodder                   |remko at elvandar.org
Reporter DSINet                |remko at dsinet.org
Projectleader Mostly-Harmless  |remko at mostly-harmless.nl