ravi.murty at intel.com
Wed Apr 16 22:32:22 UTC 2008
I was looking at the code that creates a new process (fork) with a
single thread coming out on the other side. I can't figure out a couple
1. Why is the md_spinlock_count for the new thread set to 1 and not
to 0. This happens in cpu_fork and cpu_set_upcall under the amd64 tree.
2. If this was the "per-cpu" idle thread and the AP was booting up
(running init_secondary) why does it grab sched_lock and call
spinlock_exit. It would seem simpler to set the count of the idle thread
to 0 and not have to call spinlock_exit. The only answer I can come up
with is the fact that a non-zero spinlock_count prevents interrupts from
getting disabled/renabled to some unknown value?
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